My question is related to the answer in this post.
The definition of the Gaussian copula is easy to understand and the simulation algorithm as well, but I do not see how does the two relate.
My question is why does the following algorithm (where $P$ is a correlation matrix)
- Perform a Cholesky decomposition of $P$, and set $A$ as the resulting lower triangular matrix.
- Repeat the following steps $n$ times.
- Generate a vector $Z = (Z_1, \ldots, Z_d)'$ of independent standard normal variates.
- Set $X = AZ$
- Return $U = (\Phi(X_1), \ldots, \Phi(X_d))'$.
Simulates the Gaussian copula
$$ C_P(u_1, \ldots, u_d) = \boldsymbol{\Phi}_P(\Phi^{-1}(u_1), \ldots, \Phi^{-1}(u_d)) $$
What is the intuition that explains why that algorithm works to simulate the copula?
In addition, is there a link between $U$ obtained in step 2.3 and $(u_1,...,u_d)$ in $C_p$? If so, what is it?
I am simply trying to understand why the two relate. There is no need to explain what the algorithm does nor what a copula is.