The correlation coefficient of the data pairs $(x_i,y_i), i=1,\dots,n$ is given by $$r = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i-\bar{x})(y_i - \bar{y})}{(n-1)s_x s_y}.$$
Hence $r= 0$ iff $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n x_i y_i = \bar{x}~\bar{y}.$
How does one interpret this? I am teaching a course in Probability and Statistics for the Master's students in Math, Engg, Economics, and Astronomy. I would like to give an intuitive explanation for this. Any help is greatly appreciated.