In simple linear regression: $$Residuals = \hat{Y} - Y$$
We can derive that:
$$Var(Residuals) = Var(\hat{Y} - Y) = (I-H)\cdot\sigma^2$$ ($\sigma^2$ is the variance of $Y$)
(See derivation of Var(residuals))
So my question is:
Since $h_{ii}$ (diagonal elements in H) is different for each $i$, how come the $(I-H)\cdot\sigma^2$, which is the variance of the residuals, is a constant (one of the assumptions of the LR)?
Another thing that bothers me is:
We know that the MSE (which is calculated by the sum of squared residuals divided by n-p) is an unbiased estimate of the variance of the errors, so what are the relationships between MSE, the variance of the errors and the variance of the residuals? Which one is the LR assumption targeting at?