I'm doing a logistic regression, which I understand I can do by simply saying
$$ \operatorname{logit}(Y)=\beta_0+\beta_1 x+\varepsilon $$
where $\varepsilon$ is normally distributed around $0$. Then then we can use the usual OLS methodology to fit the $\beta$s, and when we set $\varepsilon =0$, this gives us our best estimate $\widehat{\operatorname{logit}(Y)}$.
My question is, how can we find $\hat Y$ from here. I think that it isn't as simple as $\hat Y=\operatorname{logit}^{-1}\left(\widehat{\operatorname{logit}(Y)}\right)$, because I know by analogy, $\hat Y=\exp\left(\widehat{\log(Y)}+\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)$.
I looked up a logit-normal distribution (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logit-normal_distribution), but it says that there's no analytical solution for the mean of such a distribution. But I think I must be missing something because what good is the logistic regression if not to estimate $Y$.