I know that if a statistic is both sufficient and complete then it must also be minimal sufficient. But on the other hand, could I say a minimal sufficient statistic must also be a complete statistic?
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2I agree with the answers below, however it is interesting to note that the converse is true: *If a minimal sufficient statistic exists, then any complete statistic is also minimal sufficient*. – knrumsey Jul 06 '18 at 22:24
3 Answers
Consider $N(\theta,\theta)$ where $\theta>0$.Of course $\dfrac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ is minimal sufficient but not complete. To see why it is not complete, find $a$ and $b$ such that:
$$E\Big(a\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-\overline{X})^2 \Big)=E\Big(b\sum_{i=1}^nX_i^2\Big)=\theta^2$$
and therefore $E\Big(a\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-\overline{X})^2-b\sum_{i=1}^nX_i^2\Big)=0$ for all $\theta$.

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Well-formulated, although it is a little weird to have a normal distribution with same mean and variance. Also, could you give an example of the choice of a and b to complete the solution? – son520804 Jan 24 '18 at 19:11
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4I do not understand the argument since your function is a function of the pair $(\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-\overline{X})^2,\sum_{i=1}^nX_i^2)$ not of $\bar{X}_n$. – Xi'an Jan 25 '18 at 14:06
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1For $N(\theta,\theta^2)$, a similar argument *would* work showing that $(\bar X,S^2)$ is minimal sufficient but not complete for $\theta$. – StubbornAtom Jul 20 '18 at 12:48
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2If a minimal sufficient statistic is not complete, then a complete statistic simply does not exist. But for $N(\theta,\theta)$, a minimal complete sufficient statistic is $\sum X_i^2$, as can be seen from the one-parameter exponential family setup. – StubbornAtom Jul 20 '18 at 13:02
Examples of minimal sufficient statistic which are not complete are aplenty.
A simple instance is $X\sim U (\theta,\theta+1)$ where $\theta\in \mathbb R$.
It is not difficult to show $X$ is a minimal sufficient statistic for $\theta$. However, $$E_{\theta}(\sin 2\pi X)=\int_{\theta}^{\theta+1} \sin (2\pi x)\,\mathrm{d}x=0\quad,\forall\,\theta$$
And $\sin 2\pi X$ is not identically zero almost everywhere, so that $X$ is not a complete statistic.
Another example for discrete distribution can be found in textbooks as an exercise or otherwise:
Let $X$ have the mass function
$$f_{\theta}(x)=\begin{cases}\theta&,\text{ if }x=-1\\\theta^x(1-\theta)^2&,\text{ if }x=0,1,2,\ldots\end{cases}\quad,\,\theta\in (0,1)$$
It can be verified that $X$ is minimal sufficient for $\theta$.
Suppose $\psi$ is any measurable function of $X$. Then
\begin{align} &\qquad\quad E_{\theta}(\psi(X))=0\quad,\forall\,\theta \\&\implies \theta\psi(-1)+\sum_{x=0}^\infty \psi(x)\theta^x(1-\theta)^2=0\quad,\forall\,\theta \\&\implies \sum_{x=0}^\infty \psi(x)\theta^x=\frac{-\theta\psi(-1)}{(1-\theta)^2}=-\sum_{x=0}^\infty\psi(-1)x\theta^x\quad,\forall\,\theta \end{align}
Comparing coefficient of $\theta^x$ for $x=0,1,2,\ldots$ we have $$\psi(x)=-x\psi(-1)\quad,\, x=0,1,2,\ldots$$
If $\psi(-1)=c\ne 0$, then $$\psi(x)=-cx\quad,\, x=0,1,2,\ldots$$
That is, $\psi$ is non-zero with positive probability. Hence $X$ is not complete for $\theta$.

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This sine example is the best of all answers: very short and easy. – Carlos Pinzón Sep 11 '20 at 16:55
In the Cauchy distribution with unknown location, $$f(x;\mu) = \frac{1}{\pi} \, \frac{1}{1+(x-\mu)^2}$$ for a sample $(X_1,\ldots,X_n)$ the order statistic $(X_{(1)},\ldots,X_{(n)})$ is minimal sufficient, but it is incomplete since $$\mathbb{E}_\mu[\phi(X_{(i)} - X_{(j)})]\qquad i\ne j$$is constant in $\mu$ for bounded functions $\phi$. Or since $$\mathbb{E}_\mu[\phi(X_{(i)} - X_{(j)})]\qquad 1< i\ne j <n$$is (well-defined and) constant in $\mu$.

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Could you elaborate since I am a little bit lost? In my understanding, the expectation of Cauchy distribution should be infinity and how could you subtract the expectation of two order statistics, given $\mu$? – son520804 Jan 25 '18 at 04:18
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2Addendum: Actually the order statistics have [expectations except for the extreme ones.](https://www.jstor.org/stable/2283210?seq=1#page_scan_tab_contents) – Xi'an Jan 25 '18 at 07:08