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Is there any continuous distribution expressible in closed form, whose mean is such that the geometric mean of the samples is an unbiased estimator for that mean?

Update: I just realized that my samples have to be positive (or else the geometric mean may not exist) so maybe continuous isn't the right word. How about a distribution which is zero for negative values of the random variable and is continuous for positive values. Something like a truncated distribution.

user53608
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    A distribution can be continuous while having a strictly positive sample space (e.g the gamma distribution). – gammer Apr 01 '17 at 15:47
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    Also do you mean an an example where the geometric mean from a sample is an unbiased estimator of the first moment? I've only ever seen the geometric mean of a discrete set of data defined and an uncertain how the "true" (i.e. population-level) geometric mean would be defined for a continuous distribution...Maybe ${\rm exp}( E(\log(X)) )$? – gammer Apr 01 '17 at 16:04
  • It works for the lognormal distribution. – Michael R. Chernick Apr 01 '17 at 16:13
  • It holds if random variable $X$ equals some positive scalar constant $c$ [almost surely](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almost_surely). Not otherwise. – Matthew Gunn Apr 02 '17 at 20:04

2 Answers2

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I believe you are asking what is, if any, the distribution of an r.v. $X$, such that, if we have an i.i.d. sample of size $n>1$ from that distribution, it will hold that

$$E[GM] = E\left[\left(\prod_{i=1}^n X_{i}\right)^{1/n}\right] = E(X)$$

Due to the i.i.d. assumption, we have

$$E\left[\left(\prod_{i=1}^n X_{i}\right)^{1/n}\right] = E\left(X_1^{1/n}\cdot ...\cdot X_n^{1/n}\right) = E\left (X_1^{1/n}\right)\cdot ...\cdot E\left(X_n^{1/n}\right) = \left[E\left(X^{1/n}\right)\right]^n$$

and so we are asking whether we can have

$$\left[E\left(X^{1/n}\right)\right]^n = E(X)$$

But by Jensen's inequality, and the fact that the power function is strictly convex for powers higher than unity, we have that, almost surely for a non-degenerate (non-constant) random variable,

$$\left[E\left(X^{1/n}\right)\right]^n < E\left[\left(X^{1/n}\right)\right]^n = E(X)$$

So no such distribution exists.

Regarding the mention of the log-normal distribution in a comment, what holds is that the geometric mean ($GM$) of the sample from a log-normal distribution is a biased but asymptotically consistent estimator of the median. This is because, for the lognormal distribution it holds that

$$E(X^s) = \exp\left\{s\mu + \frac {s^2\sigma^2}{2}\right \}$$

(where $\mu$ and $\sigma$ are the parameters of the underlying normal, not the mean and variance of the log-normal).

In our case, $s = 1/n$ so we get

$$E(GM) = \left[E\left(X^{1/n}\right)\right]^n = \left[\exp\left\{(\mu/n) + \frac {\sigma^2}{2n^2}\right \}\right]^n = \exp\left\{\mu + \frac {\sigma^2}{2n}\right \}$$

(which tells us that it is a biased estimator of the median). But

$$\lim \left[E\left(X^{1/n}\right)\right]^n = \lim \exp\left\{\mu + \frac {\sigma^2}{2n}\right \} = e^{\mu}$$

which is the median of the distribution. One can also show that the variance of the geometric mean of the sample converges to zero, and these two conditions are sufficient for this estimator to be asymptotically consistent - for the median,

$$GM \to_p e^{\mu}$$

Alecos Papadopoulos
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  • Maybe it should be added that Jensen's inequality, applied with a strictly convex function, is an equality only if $X$ is a.s. constant. – Olivier Apr 02 '17 at 19:40
  • @Olivier: I think that's a well enough known property that it may just add clutter to include it. *In any case*, Jensen's inequality is not really even needed since considering the case $n = 2$ is already enough coupled with the fact $\mathrm{Var}(X) = 0$ implies $X = 0$ almost surely by an even more elementary argument. – cardinal Apr 02 '17 at 19:52
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This is a similar argument to Alecos's excellent answer since the arithmetic mean, geometric mean inequality is a consequence of Jensen's inequality.

  • Let $A_n$ be the arithmetic mean: $A_n = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n X_i$

  • Let $G_n$ be the geometric mean: $G_n = \left( \prod_{i=1} X_i \right) ^ \frac{1}{n}$

The arithmetic mean, geometric mean inequality states that $ A_n \geq G_n$ with equality if and only if every observation is equal: $X_1 = X_2 = \ldots = X_n$. (The AMGM inequality is a consequence of Jensen's inequality.)

Case 1: $X_1 = X_2 = \ldots = X_n$ almost surely

Then $ \operatorname{E}[G_n] = \operatorname{E}[A_n] = \operatorname{E}[X]$.

In some sense, this is an entirely degenerate case.

Case 2: $P(X_i \neq X_j) > 0$ for $i\neq j$

Then there's positive probability that the geometric mean is smaller than the arithmetic mean. Since for all outcomes $G_n \leq A_n$ and $\operatorname{E}[A_n] = \operatorname{E}[X]$, we then have $\operatorname{E}[G_n] < \operatorname{E}[X]$.

Matthew Gunn
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