I'm just trying to get my head around the differences between these three approaches to statistical inference. I'm just not entirely sure what the significant differences are between the three.
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gung - Reinstate Monica
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6Possible duplicate of [Bayesian vs frequentist Interpretations of Probability](http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/31867/bayesian-vs-frequentist-interpretations-of-probability) but also see http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/232356/who-are-frequentists and http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/225002/are-we-frequentists-really-just-implicit-unwitting-bayesians and http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/167051/who-are-the-bayesians – Sycorax Jan 01 '17 at 21:03
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1This is definitely a duplicate, maybe even to more than one question. – Michael R. Chernick Jan 01 '17 at 22:02
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See Geisser (2006), *Modes of Parametric Statistical Inference*; Barnett (1999), *Comparative Statistical Inference*, Cox (2006), *Principles of Statistical Inference*. – Scortchi - Reinstate Monica Jan 02 '17 at 10:26
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Also [What is the difference between “testing of hypothesis” and “test of significance”?](http://stats.stackexchange.com/a/16227/17230). "Fisherian", it seems to me, takes on different meanings according to precisely what approach the writer wants to contrast Fisher's with - as Fisher was on one side or the other of most 20th C. statistical controversies the term needs to be used with care. – Scortchi - Reinstate Monica Jan 11 '17 at 10:56