I am looking at a set of normal distributed data and trying to figure out why my intuition is wrong here.
If I have multiple normal distributions $N_m(M_m, S_m)$ the literature tells me that I can join them all into a single distribution $N(M, S)$ such as:
$$ M = \sum_m M_m / m \\ S = \sum_m S_m^2 / m^2 $$
And if each has a weight $W_m$: (such as $\sum_m W_m = 1$)
$$ M = \sum_m W_m M_m \\ S = {\sum_m W_m^2 S_m^2 } $$
These formulas above are wrong for the operation I am trying to achieve! (This I know now that Tim below answered my question). I am leaving them here in case somebody finds this query and is having a similar issue.
What could the data be? Lets say I have 5 classes with grade distribution and want to aggregate them into a single one.
So if I have:
N1(0, 3)
N2(0, 3)
N3(0, 3)
N4(0, 3)
N5(0, 3)
(yeah they are bad! and even have negative grades)
My aggregated $N(M,S)$ is:
$$ M = 0 $$
and
$$ S = {(0.2^2 \times 3^2) \times 5} = 1.8 $$
And here is where my intuition fails. How can my final distribution be $N(0, 1.8)$. Shouldn't I have $N(0, 3)$ as they are all the same?
Also, notice that with weights I will get the same result unless I make one of them 99% and the rest a small % each. So that makes me wonder if the formulas are use are correct but the result is not an aggregated distribution to represent the other 5 or something else (as in, the distribution of picking a result from each distribution or something like that).
Hope somebody can help me understand the concept behind these results?