Is there any difference between $R^2$ that we get from linear regression and pearson correlation?
Asked
Active
Viewed 128 times
0
-
$\sqrt{}$ is your friend :) – epsilone Nov 06 '16 at 23:38
1 Answers
2
A simple answer: in a simple regression model (with a single independent variable) where the independent is interval (not nominal) - Pearsons correlation$^2$ equals $R^2$. But in a multiple regression model it does not. Pearson correlation cannot control for confounders, while a regression model can, thus the explained variance of the dependent variable is a combination of the multiple independent variables' effect.

Yuval Spiegler
- 1,821
- 1
- 15
- 31