If I look at a sequence of 100 coin tosses and I get 90 heads the probability of the coin being fair vs not fair is a lot lower as answered in a lot of questions already. But when I go from looking at 90 heads to the actual permutation of heads and tails, that permutation is equally as likely to be caused by a fair coin as any other permutation. So that permutation being equally as likely as any other how could we say that the coin being fair is less likely?
Am I confusing the direction of the statements? A fair coin is equally likely to cause this permutation, but the permutation is less likely to be caused by a fair coin? This seems weird to say and I have trouble unifying the two views. I'm making some kind of logical error.