I would like some clarification regarding a regression specified using Wilkinson-Rogers notation to produce coefficients for all levels in a categorical variable.
Consider the regression specifed by Income ~ Sex
, where Sex
is a categorical variable with two levels, Male
and Female
. This regression will produce two coefficients, one for the intercept, and one for either the level Male
or Female
, as the effect of one level of Sex
is automatically incorporated into the intercept.
My question is what coefficients should the notation Income ~ Sex - 1
produce? This is used to exclude the intercept term. In R
, which uses a 'modified form' of Wilkinson-Rogers this fits coefficients to both levels of Sex
. However, in Matlab
, one level is still dropped, thus only one coefficient is produced.