Can I test for correlation between variables before standardize them? I am not quite sure what should I do first.
Correlation will be the same regardless whether you calculate it before or after standardization. To see this, it is enough to know that correlation is invariant to scale. Take $b \in \mathbb{R}$ and $a>0$, then
$$
\begin{aligned}
\text{Corr}(aX-b,Y) &= \frac{\text{Cov}(aX-b,Y)}{\sqrt{\text{Var}(aX-b)}\sqrt{(\text{Var}(Y)}} \\
&= \frac{\text{Cov}(aX,Y)}{\sqrt{\text{Var}(aX)}\sqrt{\text{Var}(Y)}} \\
&= \frac{a \text{Cov}(X,Y)}{\sqrt{a^2 \text{Var}(X)}\sqrt{\text{Var}(Y)}} \\
&= \frac{a \text{Cov}(X,Y)}{a \sqrt{\text{Var}(X)}\sqrt{\text{Var}(Y)}} \\
&= \frac{\text{Cov}(X,Y)}{\sqrt{\text{Var}(X)}\sqrt{\text{Var}(Y)}} \\
&= \text{Corr}(X,Y)
\end{aligned}
$$
The first equality is a definition.
The second uses the property that covariance as well as variance are invariant to location shifts.
The third uses the properties of covariance and variance with respect to multiplication by a constant.
The fourth uses the fact that $a>0$.
The fifth just cancels out the multipliers.
The sixth is again a definition.
This covers standardization, which is subtracting the mean and dividing by the standard deviation (a positive number).