I know the definition of leverage points in regression, that is $h_{ii}=x_{i}'(X'X)^{-1}x_{i}. $
In many places and text books, they always say that leverage is a standardized measure of the distance of the ith observation from the center of the x space. But I don't understand why.
I think that if you want to measure that distance, you need to use Mahalanobis distance, that is $(x_{i}-\mu)'\Sigma^{-1}(x_{i}-\mu)$. Clearly, it is not the same with $h_{ii}$. So I am confused why they say that.
Thanks in advance for you reply!
Thank you for your reminding that there is a similar question: Prove the relation between Mahalanobis distance and Leverage?
But in the answer, the author assumed that the mean of the regressors is 0, I don't understand this assumption. What if the mean isn't 0? In this case, the following proceeds can not go through(the matrix $X'X$ is not diagonal matrix and so it is not easy to get its inverse).
Because I don't have enough reputation to leave a comment to the author, so I ask a new question here. I know that if we have proofed the relationship between Mahalanobis distance and Leverage, then my question is solved. But maybe there is another way to answer my question. Thank you!