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I would like some help in interpreting some odd cross-price elasticities that I got from my model. I estimated the following multinomial probit model and calculated the elasticities post-estimation:

$Alt_{i}=\beta_0 + \beta_1PriceA_i+\beta_2PriceB_{i}+\beta_3PriceC_{i}+\beta_4PriceD_{i}+ X\beta + \epsilon_i$

where $Alt_{i}$ is the type of health facility chosen by the individual decision-maker to have a one-time medical procedure (e.g. sterilization, medical circumcision, etc.) done. $Alt_{i}$ is a discrete choice variable with 4 levels, A, B, C, and D. The base outcome is facility type A.

The cross-price elasticities are shown in the table below. Non-significant elasticities are omitted from this table to make the output cleaner: $$\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline & \text{A} & \text{B} & \text{C} & \text{D}\\ \hline \text{PriceA} & -0.34*& 0.15* & -0.35** & 0.16** \\ \hline \text{PriceB} & & & & \\ \hline \text{PriceC} & 0.13** & 0.13*** & -0.19** & -0.10* \\ \hline \text{PriceD} & -0.43** & &0.23* & 0.15* \\ \hline \end{array}$$ Note: * p<0.05; ** p<0.01; *** p<0.001

I am most interested in the interpretation of the effect of $PriceC$ on the probability of choosing Alternative D. Standard economic interpretation for a negative cross-price elasticity is that the two alternatives are complements, that is: an increase in the price of one alternative would result in a decrease in the predicted probability of choosing the other alternative. However, standard economic interpretation does not make sense in this case, because the two alternatives are not likely to be complements, because the procedure (e.g. sterilization) can only be done once.

I also noticed that an increase in $PriceD$ caused increases in the probability of using both facilities C and D. I can make an argument that an increase in the price of D would lead decision-makers to choose a lower-priced alternative (in this case, C), but what about the positive own-elasticity of D? My gut feeling is that there are other issues affecting preference, such as quality, not accounted for in the main model (I don't have measures of quality in my dataset). For example, service at Facility D is more expensive, but it may also be of higher quality, or at least perceived to be higher quality and preferred by the decision-maker (but if that's the case, then why is the cross-price elasticity of D with facility C positive?).

I was thinking about offering the following explanations, but I am not sure whether they explain the observed results fully:

  1. This model should probably have been fitted as a nested logit model, since some of the alternatives may be nested. Of the 26 possible nesting combinations, the following 6 are plausible for this outcome alternative: Plausible nesting structures

    Could nested choice probabilities of the alternatives lead to the empirical results shown here?

  2. Quality of care at facilities C and D may affect preference, but I don't have the variables for quality of care in my dataset, so the seemingly counterintuitive results may have stemmed from omitted variable bias.

Could anyone suggest other reasons for the results that I show here?

Marquis de Carabas
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  • Good question! Is it also of some concern that two of the posted "own" price elasticities, i.e., Price A with alt Aor Price C with alt C, are negative? Have you considered a panel data structure with the alternatives and prices as alternating rows (as opposed to the one row per alternative)? This approach might lend itself to more intuitive answers. – Mike Hunter Apr 04 '16 at 14:20
  • @DJohnson, Own-price elasticities are expected to be negative based the law of demand, so I'm perfectly happy that those 2 own-elasticities are negative (less for me to "explain away"). Positive cross-price elasticities imply that the two products are substitutes, an interpretation that is possible in the context of this study (e.g. if the quality of a vasectomy is just as good in Facilty X as it is in Facility Y but cheaper in X, I would get it done in Facility X instead of Y). Negative cross-price elasticities imply that the products are complements, which doesn't make sense, (cont.) – Marquis de Carabas Apr 04 '16 at 16:14
  • because you can only get the vasectomy done once (assuming you don't get a procedure to reverse it [vasovasostomy] and then get another vasectomy if you change your mind, etc etc.), so the complements interpretation does not make sense. Now to clarify about "panel structure" from your original comment, do you mean to suggest that I fit an alternative-specific multinomial probit model? – Marquis de Carabas Apr 04 '16 at 16:18

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