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Binary data is often mentioned as a nominal sub-category, especially in such examples as female/male, smoker/non-smoker, etc. However, binary data with such values as pass/fail, correct/incorrect, absent/present, etc, seems to give some weight to its values. It's not like in the example of the gender, where both values are equal and differ primarily by the nominal and other context-related traits. Instead, this type of binary data clearly indicates that one value means something and the other means nothing.

In case of such distinction, can binary be considered ordinal? If yes, what are statistical tests that are usually used for such data? Also, are there any interesting books or papers on this case?

Billy the Poet
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    Yes, it can be considered ordinal. Mostly in the domain of similarity measures and clustering. I've noticed that many times here. Please search the site for `ordinal present absent`. – ttnphns Sep 01 '15 at 08:38
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    Just for instance, this post http://stats.stackexchange.com/a/15313/3277. Your notion of `seems to give some weight to its values` is relevant. – ttnphns Sep 01 '15 at 08:41
  • Thank you, ttnhns, I have read some posts previously and I now went through the discussion in your link. I think it resonates with my question, but it would require considerable time for understanding in depth and likewise considerable space for explaining in the paper, none of which are at my current disposal. Since I am using Stevens's typology of measurement levels, I wonder if you know of any papers or books I could refer to in my explanation of why ordinal is a better scale rather than nominal. I have tried both Google Books and Scholar, but to no avail. So, just wonder if you know of any – Billy the Poet Sep 01 '15 at 10:13
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    Why should one blindly worship some authority (such as Stevens' typology) to refer to? You can invent your own. If you have ideas which you can substantiate (at least logically) - express them. – ttnphns Sep 01 '15 at 10:54
  • Because I have no status of my own at the moment. I am relying on operational definitions and explanations here and there, but I also need some data from outside. I can call cow a horse by the operational definition, but it won't necessarily coincide with reality. External validity would be hurt badly. – Billy the Poet Sep 01 '15 at 11:21
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    There are only two possible orderings of binary data and they are equivalent, suggesting there isn't a meaningful question here. The interpretation that one value means "nothing" is surpassingly strange. I haven't seen any publication, statistical or not, that even remotely suggests (for instance) that "male" is meaningful while "female" is not. Each has meaning only in contrast to the other--and therein is the essence of all binary distinctions. – whuber Sep 03 '15 at 18:58
  • @whuber, so would you say that, for instance, failed/passed where one student gets the point and the other does not, is same as male/female? – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 19:09
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    Statistically, those situations are identical and can be analyzed in exactly the same ways. – whuber Sep 03 '15 at 21:02
  • If by definition only, would you still say they are same? If you don't take analysis into account, but you are merely asked to identify their scales, would you say they are same? – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 21:41
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    @BillythePoet: That's like asking "How much do you weigh, not taking into account what planet you're on?". – Scortchi - Reinstate Monica Sep 03 '15 at 23:05
  • @Scortchi, If your analogy is correct, it would be more appropriate for the context in which the data were taken. I cannot say the data for M/F are same as correct/incorrect, because these differences are different. If one is male and the other is female, the difference is solely due to gender and one cannot be looked upon as superior to the other. If, however, one gains a point for being correct on a question and the other does not, there is a difference and, most importantly, it is comparative. So, we can actually compare and say one student performed better than the other. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 23:33
  • @BillythePoet: Sub specie aeternatis males are more male than females, by exactly one unit of maleness in fact. I occupy a middle ground here between those who claim that we can *only* say males are more male than females & those who claim that females represent the absolute zero of maleness (the suggestion that males are merely less female than females is too absurd to be seriously entertained). - "A wheel that can be turned though nothing else moves with it is not part of the mechanism" – Scortchi - Reinstate Monica Sep 04 '15 at 07:52

2 Answers2

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Two is a paltry number, barely plural, & a two-point scale left to its own devices needs only to distinguish before it can put its feet up: it's otiose to muse on whether equal intervals or equal ratios are meaningful when there's only a single interval or ratio to consider, or on whether ranking is meaningful when there's only one sequence a pair can have; all the operations you might want to perform on the data are unaffected by its representation, as @Tim has explained.

It's only for the external relations of a binary variable that these things matter at all. The Jaccard index is a measure of similarity between two individuals each having several attributes represented by binary variables; you calculate the ratio of the number of attributes for which both have "1" to the number of attributes for which either have "1". Clearly the coding as "0" & "1" isn't arbitrary here (though we could swap it round for all variables at once & make a corresponding change to the calculation of the Jaccard index). This is the situation in which @ttnphns talks of "ordinal dichotomous variables", which seems fair enough. An example can be found in Faith et al. (2013), "The long-term stability of the human gut microbiota", Science, 341, 6141, where the Jaccard index is used to measure the similarity of the make-up of an individual's gut flora at different time points—the ratio of the number of bacterial strains in common over the total number of strains found. The choice of metric seems sensible—why take into account all the different strains absent at both time points? could an exhaustive list even be compiled?

A more hum-drum example might be found in the various ways variables are often combined into indices, scores, or whatever; to serve as, say, descriptive statistics, or predictors in regression. To calculate the Charlson comorbidity index you add up dichotomous variables that indicate conditions such as myocardial infarct & congestive heart failure. Many conditions are coded with "0" & "1"; but as hemilplegia contributes 2, & malignant tumor 6, to the total score, I'm tempted to propose these as interval-scale dichotomous variables.

Needless to say, how you align different binary scales in these kinds of situations depends on making decisions appropriate for the job at hand rather than somehow intuiting the true nature of each individual scale—an attribute coded "1" for the calculation of one Jaccard index might be coded "0" for the calculation of another.

The paragraph above exemplifies something that's always the case with this business of scale types. Stevens points out various relationships between which features of how you represent data need to be considered meaningful & the kinds of operations you perform during your analysis:

Scales are possible in the first place only because there is a certain isomorphism between what we can do with the aspects of objects and the properties of the numeral series. In dealing with the aspects of objects we invoke empirical operations for determining equality (classifying), for rank-ordering, and for determining when differences and when ratios between the aspects of objects are equal. The conventional series of numerals yields to analogous operations: we can identify the members of a numeral series and classify them. We know their order as given by convention. We can determine equal differences, as $8-6=4-2$, and equal ratios, as $\frac{8}{4}=\frac{6}{3}$. The isomorphism between these properties of the numeral series and certain empirical operations which we perform with objects permits the use of the series as a model to represent aspects of the empirical world.

This is an instance of an important general principle: you don't want arbitrary or conventional decisions about how to write things down to materially affect your conclusions.

The type of scale achieved depends upon the character of the basic empirical operations performed. These operations are limited ordinarily by the nature of the thing being scaled and by our choice of procedures, but, once selected, the operations determine that there will eventuate one or another of the scales listed in Table 1.1 [nominal, ordinal, interval, & ratio].

So you can't, for example, average scores on a five-point scale and claim that the interval between scale points doesn't matter: something's got to give (& note that it may well be the claim rather than the averaging—see e.g. here). It's a mistake to confuse this prohibition with the stipulation that first you need to determine the true scale type & then think about suitable methods of analysis. See Should types of data (nominal/ordinal/interval/ratio) really be considered types of variables?.

Scortchi - Reinstate Monica
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The general idea of ordinal data is that there is some order or gradation of different categories and

exact numerical quantity of a particular value has no significance beyond its ability to establish a ranking over a set of data points (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ordinal_data)

With ordinal data your categories are ordered, e.g. $a < b < c$, so you are interested in the relations between categories, $a < b$ and $b < c$, so $a < c$. In this case ordering matters and if you re-assigned the labels in random order you would loose important information.

With binary data you have only two categories so knowing that $x > y$ provides you with the same information as knowing that $\neg(x^* < y^*)$, where $x^*$ and $y^*$ are $x$ and $y$ with reversed coding. In this case one category is compliment of another so their ordering does not matter.

For example, with changing the labels in logistic regression you just get reversed signs of coefficients and this is what we expect, for more see the recent question on logistic regression (check @Scortchi's comment for the linked question).

On the other hand, as @ttnphns noticed, there are similarity measures that make assumptions about coding of binary categories, like Jaccard index and in these cases it makes a difference how the categories are coded. Coding of the categories (e.g. as $0$ and $1$ or $-1$ and $+1$) in many cases could also make interpretation of the results easier (positive or negative influence). In both cases the difference concerns rather with coding of the variables rather than with information they carry.

Tim
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  • Yes, but can this order be limited to two values? In the ordinal data, the higher the value, the more likely the variable is being measured. For example, in some questions, 'never' is given the value of 0 and is considered the lowest of the variable, whereas 'always' is considered the highest presentation of the variable. Could this be likewise the case with the binary data of fail/pass, correct/incorrect, etc? If not, are these data then really nominal? I doubt it fits the latter category. – Billy the Poet Sep 01 '15 at 07:59
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    Tim, I would rather not concur with you, if to speak generally. Yes, as independent variables in regression binary variables behaves that peculiar way that you may thik of them as if interval or as ordinal or nominal - and it makes no difference. In other context (for example, clustering) it may have difference. The difference can appear in a multivariate context. – ttnphns Sep 01 '15 at 08:34
  • I think a better solution could be if the question is looked from the point of the type of data rather than from the other end of what statistical analysis matches it. – Billy the Poet Sep 01 '15 at 09:57
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    @BillythePoet: The idea that data is essentially of a given type irrespective of what you might want to do with it is misguided. See [Should types of data (nominal/ordinal/interval/ratio) really be considered types of variables?](http://stats.stackexchange.com/q/106393/17230) & especially the references in [Glen_b's answer](http://stats.stackexchange.com/a/106400/17230) - the whole of Lord (1953) & Section 9 of Velleman & Wilkinson (1993). – Scortchi - Reinstate Monica Sep 01 '15 at 11:46
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    @Tim: I had thought the same - see comments [here](http://stats.stackexchange.com/q/48747/17230). Calculating the [Jaccard coefficient](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jaccard_index) is a good example of when the coding for dichotomous variables needs to be non-arbitrary. – Scortchi - Reinstate Monica Sep 01 '15 at 12:26
  • Thank you guys for recommendations. I am still reading through the material, but I have a quick question that needs to be addressed. Even if it makes sense to categorize the data for correct/incorrect as ordinal, when I will be describing it, all I have is a median. Doesn't it sort of limit my choice of tools to use for inferences? In the end, how are test scores for particular questions are described statistically when their processed values can be only correct or incorrect? – Billy the Poet Sep 01 '15 at 22:26
  • @BillythePoet IRT model is probably what you are looking for, e.g. http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/142276/how-to-judge-which-test-is-more-difficult/142279#142279 , it is a method designed for binary (but not only) test scores! – Tim Sep 02 '15 at 14:01
  • I went through Glen_b's answer and I have read the references provided in the post. It was certainly a great read. However, I need information not for the critique but for the analysis. Thus, I wonder if anyone has any references that discuss in depth the question of ordinal data being dichotomous. I have looked up on google books and scholar, but found nothing relevant. – Billy the Poet Sep 02 '15 at 23:44
  • @BillythePoet but what exactly would you like to *learn* from such data? How would you imagine order would make a difference in here? As I wrote in my answer, I see no area where it makes a difference besides that in some methods arbitrary coding makes some algorithms behave differently. – Tim Sep 03 '15 at 07:23
  • At its most fundamental, processing the data as nominal makes no sense. In the nominal data, male and female are just different. one is not superior to the other. Same goes for most other variables that are measured nominally. My case is not same as the correct and the incorrect are different, and the correct is clearly more superior than the incorrect. Categorizing these data as nominal is misleading. This means the data belong to other types. The closest it gets to by definition is ordinal. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 10:28
  • I need all that because I have to complete my analyses using SPSS, which requires all the measurements to be typed. All I need now is sources discussing dichotomous ordinal data. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 10:31
  • @Tim, if I follow your proposition correctly, your interpretation is my inference. To make appropriate conclusions, it requires sufficient tests to be done. The sufficient tests are dependent on the scale your data belong to (at least in SPSS, or psychometrics in general). This is especially in my case where the participants took the test only once. Meaning there were no repeated testings. Claiming that 0 and 1 are not arbitrary is naive, since the conclusions we make will be about which answers were correct and which were incorrect, as this points out who remembered and who did not remember. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 15:16
  • @Tim, I understand that 0 and 1 are not numbers and should not be treated as such, they are just labels used to indicate values per observations. But, one is given more superiority over the other and hence they are not categorical. Even if we re-code 1 into 0 and 0 into 1, the former will still be given more importance over the latter. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 15:35
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    @BillythePoet ok, so I re-state my question: what would you like to learn form a binary ordered variable? What question you are asking about such variable? Maybe I am missing something... – Tim Sep 03 '15 at 16:40
  • @Tim, a memory test was given to participants in two different groups. The overall scores (for all questions combined) were compared across the two groups with t-test. Now, I want to compare the two groups in how they performed on each question to see their differences. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 16:43
  • @Tim, I really doubt you understand my entire point, even though I tried my best to explain in it several times. If you had to put it in the context where the data are categorized as either failed/passed, or absent/present, what measurement would you use? I can understand why you would go for nominal. But, nominal itself indicates that the difference is plainly derived from the labels. In other words, would Pass/Fail be same as Black/White? – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 17:17
  • @Tim, thank you, it is very elaborate and, indeed, I understand your point that the knowledge of the correct answer has to compensate for the incorrect and vice versa. But are ordinal scales really always non-dichotomous? I doubt because much will depend on the context of assigning one value over the other. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 17:40
  • Here, Argyrous (2011) says: ‘Yes’ response as only nominal, when they are almost invariably ordinal. Consider a question that asks participants in a study ‘Do you feel healthy?’ We can say that someone who responds ‘Yes’ is not only different in their (perceived) health level, but they also have a higher health level than someone who responds ‘No’. Practically any question that offers a Yes/No response option can be interpreted in this way as being an ordinal scale. http://www.corwin.com/upm-data/9932_039860Ch1.pdf – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 17:40
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    @BillythePoet You can always *consider* that 1 is higher than 0, but this does not change your analysis at any point since what you have is simply two categories, so the only thing that you could do is to count 0's and 1's, no matter of their meaning. The numbers do not *carry* (no matter if ordered or not) any additional information, it is only how you interpret them. You can consider them as ordinal and insist on some certain coding but you are still limited to the same math as with non-ordered binary data. Coding may help you with interpreting the results but that's all. – Tim Sep 03 '15 at 17:53
  • @Tim, you are right about the tests, as most nominal and ordinal require same analyses for their inferences. I agree with your proposition; however, I also find it paradoxical with the definition of the data. I would say this is a gap that Stevens and his supporters have overlooked when coming up with the entire measurement typology. It is a rather fine example of categorical fallacies that were expressed by Wittgenstein and that still hold true today when we try to organize variables or their measurements. Thank you for your input, it was very helpful and made things clear to me. – Billy the Poet Sep 03 '15 at 18:50
  • @BillythePoet I get what you say, what I mean is simply that the *information* carried and the *meaning* (or *interpretation*) of such data are different things. You could consider it ordinal but it would not change what you could learn from such data. – Tim Sep 03 '15 at 19:09