I read in a paper the following sentence:
The fact that there is a difference between short-term and long-term coefficients is a result of our specification which includes lagged endogenous variables.
They run a regression in first differences and include a lag of the dependent variable.
Now they argue, that if you look at an estimate (e.g. lets call this estimate $p$) from the output, that this is the short run effect of $p$ on the dependent variable.
Further they argue that looking at $p$ / (1 - estimate for the lag) gives the long run effect of p on the dependent variable.
The paper can be found: https://www.ecb.europa.eu/pub/pdf/scpwps/ecbwp1328.pdf and their discussion about short/long run effect on page 20 in the footnote 23.
I don't exactly understand why you can differentiate between the short and the long run effect of $p$ on the dependent variable. If someone could explain their idea more detailed it would be very helpful.