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I'm under the impression that up to a one-to-one function complete sufficient statistics are unique. How can I show this?

kjetil b halvorsen
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Gaunnett
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    see https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/41881/what-are-complete-sufficient-statistics/41938#41938 and https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/196601/what-is-the-intuition-behind-defining-completeness-in-a-statistic-as-being-impos – kjetil b halvorsen May 13 '18 at 16:36

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