It has to do with moment generating functions. Specifically, variance is defined to be the second moment about the mean, and the third moment generating function is called the skewness. All of these things are called shape parameters, because they describe the shape of the distribution. The 4th moment, Kurtosis which (loosely) descibes how tall a distribution gets, but that's not exactly what you're doing.
Update- Thank you @amoeba for pointing out my mean formulas were wrong, they should be expected values not sums.
$E [(X)]$ - Mean
$E [(X-\mu)^2]$ - Variance
$E [(X-\mu)^3]$ - Third moment, leads to Skewness
$E [(X-\mu)^4]$ - Forth moment, leads to Kurtosis
and so on...
Update- Also to @amobea's point, skewness and kurtosis have additional calculations that need to be done. However, the 3rd and 4th moment generating functions are correctly listed (now). Henry's answer is much more concise and may provide better insight.
So you can do what you purpose but you'll need to make another name up for it, because standard deviation has already been defined.
To be clear, people started calling the second moment 'variance' and the name stuck. Then someone else took the square root of that, and started calling it standard deviation, and the name stuck. Other people said, "that's a good measure for what I'm trying to use", so they wrote articles/theses/etc. with regards to standard deviation.
To your point, there are other methods for describing the 'spread' of a distribution. Standard deviation has a straight forward interpretations with properties that many are familiar with, especially when dealing the Normal distribution. To say one measure is summarily better than all others in all cases is, in my opinion, inappropriate.
Like everything else in the world, the right tool to use depends on the job you're trying to do, or in this case the right measure to use depends on what question you're trying to answer.
For example, in my line of work people tend to use MAPE, which doesn't describe the distribution at all, and has a number of issues of its own which make it a poor fit for what they are trying to do, but everyone has been doing it for a while, so that's what will likely continue happening for the foreseeable future. That has more to do with human nature than statistics, but also is somewhat applicable to your question (and maybe the best answer).
One final point: if you're going to do a sum, you need to muliply each x by the probability of x
$$ E[(X-\mu)^4] = \sum_{x\in D}^{ } (x-\mu)^4*p(x)$$
Your 1/N is only valid if each value of x is equally likely (a.k.a. the distribution is uniform).