Say I have the model,
$Y_i = B_0 + B_1X + e_i$
and I have $N$ samples of size $k$. Let $X$ be a dummy variable.
In some samples, I have variation on $X$, and in some I don't (all $0$ or all $1$). For each sample, I attempt to estimate $B_0$ and $B_1$ using OLS. In samples where there is no variation, then $B_1$ is ill-defined.
Assuming that the samples of size three are drawn from the same underlying distribution, what would be the consequence for the distribution of $B_0$, $B_1$ if I discarded samples without variation on $X$. It seems like it should be benign.