According to Gelman, a weakly informative prior is defined in the following way:
We characterize a prior distribution as weakly informative if it is proper but is set up so that the information it does provide is intentionally weaker than whatever actual prior knowledge is available
I humbly consider this definition a bit misleading, Wouldn't more correct to say that a weakly informative prior is a proper prior which doesn't carry a lot of information before observing the data?
Thank you.