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Is it possible that a mixture of Weibull RVs is also Weibull distributed, and if yes, what are the necessary conditions?

gung - Reinstate Monica
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thierry
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  • Is this for a course? – gung - Reinstate Monica Dec 18 '14 at 20:14
  • No, I am just trying to figure out if a model I am trying to build would be justifiable. :-) I was hoping somebody could give me a pointer whether this is possible and I could go on in a way that is theoretically sound. – thierry Dec 18 '14 at 20:28
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    It's possible in at least one very restricted situation -- if all the components were identical in distribution, the (degenerate) mixture would be Weibull. In general, however, a finite mixture of different Weibulls will not be Weibull. If you can be more specific more might be said, but the answer to nontrivial cases will nearly always be 'no'. Can you give more details? It might make it a lot easier to answer. – Glen_b Dec 19 '14 at 01:02
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    Do you mean a finite mixture, or a possibly continous mixture? Continuous mixtures of exponentials form a quite well-known class of distributions, all being DFR (Decreasing Failure Rate). This class includes the DFR Weibull distribution (shape $<1$). – Yves Dec 21 '14 at 09:30

1 Answers1

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The Weibull survival function with shape parameter $k$ and scale parameter $\lambda$ (both positive) has the form

$$S(x; \lambda, k) = \exp\left(-(x/\lambda)^k\right)$$

for $x \gt 0.$ A finite mixture of $n$ such distributions is determined by positive mixture weights $p_i$ (necessarily summing to unity) and corresponding parameters and has survival function

$$S = \sum_{i=1}^n p_i \exp\left(-(x/\lambda_i)^{k_i}\right).$$

Equating these two expressions and some straightforward analysis show the following:

  1. By studying the asymptotic behavior of $\log S$ for large $x,$ conclude that

    $k = k_1 = k_2 = \ldots = k_n.$

  2. Again by studying this asymptotic behavior assuming all the $k_i$ are equal to $k,$ conclude that

    $\lambda = \lambda_1 = \ldots = \lambda_n.$

These are necessary and sufficient conditions.

Consequently

$$\eqalign{ S &= \sum_{i=1}^n p_i \exp\left(-(x/\lambda_i)^{k_i}\right) \\ &= \sum_{i=1}^n p_i \exp\left(-(x/\lambda)^k\right) \\ &= \left(\sum_{i=1}^n p_i\right) \exp\left(-(x/\lambda)^k\right) \\ &= \exp\left(-(x/\lambda)^k\right) }$$

isn't really a mixture at all.

For an example of how such asymptotic investigations may be carried out rigorously, see this answer to the same question about Normal distributions.

whuber
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