3

A normal process has a lot of outcomes around the mean and then fewer and fewer outcomes away from the mean. From this, can we conclude that a normal process reverts to the mean whenever it gets a certain distance away from the mean? In that sense, is a normal process the same as a mean reverting process?

Victor
  • 5,925
  • 13
  • 43
  • 67

1 Answers1

1

If by a "normal process" you mean that $Y_t\sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)$ with the $Y$'s independent of each other then its mean - both unconditional and conditional on previous $Y$'s - is always $\mu$.

That's stronger than mean-reversion, since the conditional mean doesn't ever deviate from $\mu$, no matter how far from $\mu$ the previous observation was.

If you meant something else, you need to be more specific about your intent.

Glen_b
  • 257,508
  • 32
  • 553
  • 939