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My question is simply, why is the geometric median called the $L_1$ estimator? This always reminds of $L_p$ spaces but the distance being minimized in the geometric median's definition isn't $L_1$ but rather the $L_2$ (Euclidean) norm. What does the $L_1$ refer to?

Is it just a misnomer/an accident/a freak of nature/something historical?

amoeba
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Fixed Point
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    "$L_1$" really is the $L_1$ norm. The median is any point at which the sum of the $L_1$ norms between the points and the median is minimal, just as the mean is any point at which the sum of the $L_2$ norms and the mean ("centroid") is minimized. – whuber Aug 26 '14 at 22:50
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    @whuber The geometric median doesn't minimize the $L_1$ norm. It minimizes the $L_2$ norm. And the mean doesn't minimize the $L_2$ norm but rather the square of the $L_2$ norm. That is why the multivariate mean is also called the centroid. – Fixed Point Aug 26 '14 at 22:54
  • I said $L_2$ norm for the mean, right? And you're correct--I meant the square of it. (That nicety won't apply to the discussion of the $L_1$ norm, of course.) – whuber Aug 26 '14 at 22:55

2 Answers2

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Given a collection $\{\mathbf x^{(i)}\}$ of $N$ points in $\mathbb R^m$, their geometric median is a point $\mathbf y$ minimizing the sum of Euclidean distances to each point: $$L = \sum_{i=1}^N \|\mathbf x^{(i)} - \mathbf y\|.$$ Each Euclidean distance in this sum is indeed a $L_2$ norm of a vector in $\mathbb R^m$. But consider a vector $\mathbf{d} \in \mathbb R^N$, whose coordinates are given by these distances: $d_i = \|\mathbf x^{(i)} - \mathbf y\|$. Then the same cost function $L$ can be equivalently written as the $L_1$ norm of this vector: $$L=\sum_{i=1}^N d_i = \sum_{i=1}^N |d_i| = \|\mathbf d\|_1.$$ That is, I believe, why the geometric median is called a $L_1$ estimator.

amoeba
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[Response rewritten]

I think I was too confusing, I apologize for that. Now I am trying to give a proper answer.

We know that median minimize the $L_1$ norm. The formula is $$ L_1 = \underset{y \in \mathbb{R}}{\operatorname{arg\,min}}\sum_{i=1}^{n}|x_i-y|$$ Also the mean minimize the $L_2$ norm. Again, the formula is $$ L_2 = \underset{y \in \mathbb{R}}{\operatorname{arg\,min}}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i-y)^2$$ In plain English we say that the median minimize the sum of distances and the mean minimize the sum of squares of those distances. We note also that we are in $\mathbb{R}$.

My idea is that because we are in $\mathbb{R}$, the distance function can be any particular case of p-norm, the result would be the same. So I generalize by saying that the distance is p-norm (it might be any type of distance in fact) and to finish quicker we move to $\mathbb{R}^m$ at the same time $$L_1 = \underset{y \in \mathbb{R}^m}{\operatorname{arg\,min}}\sum_{i=1}^{n}|(\sum_{j=1}^{m}(x_{i,j}^p-y_j^p))^\frac{1}{p}| = \underset{y \in \mathbb{R}^m}{\operatorname{arg\,min}}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\|x_i-y\|_p $$ What is important here is that it does not matter what is the value for $p$, it will be an $L_1$. [Note, as suggested by @amoeba, there are two norms, one inside another; the first one is $L_1$ applied on distances, and a nested one applied on the elements of the vectors in $\mathbb{R}^m$].

Going back to your original question, the geometric median is defined as the point in Euclidean space which minimize the sum of distances. I believe the reason for the word geometric comes from Euclidean space and Euclidean distance (which is $\|.\|_2$) and minimize the sum of distances (not the squares as in the case of an $L_2$ estimator), so $$GM = L_1 = \underset{y \in \mathbb{R}^m}{\operatorname{arg\,min}}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\|x_i-y\|_2 $$ As a final note we might choose to minimize:

  • the sum of Manhattan distances ($L_1$ and $\|.\|_1$ as distance)
  • the sum of squares of Manhattan distances ($L_2$ and $\|.\|_1$ as distance)
  • the sum of Euclidean distances (geometric median)
  • the sum of squares of Euclidean distances ($L_2$ and $\|.\|_2$ as distance) and so on.
rapaio
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    First, all metrics by definition are non-negative so most of the absolute values are irrelevant. Second, this answer doesn't make any sense to me. Please see my addendum to the question for refutation. I am not the downvoter but I am very inclined to do so. – Fixed Point Aug 26 '14 at 22:49
  • (You got in here too fast for me, Fixed!) I downvoted this reply because it confuses the issue. When an $L_p$ norm is of concern, as is the case for the median, a Euclidean ($L_2$) norm is irrelevant. Although there appears to be a correct answer buried here, it is hard to find because of the references to Euclidean space. – whuber Aug 26 '14 at 22:54
  • @whuber I don't agree with this comment. The norm is very relevant. In a dimension higher than one, the $L_1$ minimizer will be different than an $L_2$ minimizer which will be different than an $L_3$ minimizer ... which will be different than an $L_{\infty}$ minimizer. – Fixed Point Aug 26 '14 at 23:06
  • Yes, that is correct--but you're responding to something I did not write. When you are minimizing the $L_1$ norm, *none of the others matter.* That is the sense in which the $L_2$ norm is not relevant to your question. – whuber Aug 26 '14 at 23:20
  • @whuber Okay, I agree. But here we are not minimizing the $L_1$ norm. The geometric median minimizes the $L_2$ norm. To my question, $L_2$ is relevant and rather $L_1$ seems irrelevant. – Fixed Point Aug 26 '14 at 23:30
  • The median minimizes the $L_1$ norm, not the $L_2$ norm. This is pretty clear in one dimension by examining the derivative of the sum of $L_1$ distances to the median. If by "geometric median" you mean a generalization of the usual concept of median to more than one dimension, then the $L_1$ norm is the appropriate metric. – whuber Aug 27 '14 at 00:40
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    @whuber Repeating, in $\mathbb{R}$, all $p$-norms are equal so the univariate median minimizes $L_1$ and $L_2$ and all other $L_p$ norms. The geometric median, which is one generalization of the univariate median to higher dimensions, minimizes $L_2$ distance which is also called the Euclidean distance. The geometric median does NOT minimize $L_1$ distance. Take a look at wikipedia or any of your favorite papers/books talking about multivariate medians. Why is there even an argument about that which is clear in the definition of the geometric median accepted by the community? – Fixed Point Aug 27 '14 at 02:46
  • I've rewrote the answer to clarify my point of view. Thank you both – rapaio Aug 27 '14 at 21:32
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    Rapaio, I think there is one little piece that is missing from your answer even after the edit, and it makes it confusing for the @FixedPoint. There are *two* norms involved here. One norm defines the distance between points. If Euclidean distance is used (as in geometric median), then it is obviously a $L_2$ norm. But now consider distances from each $\mathbf{x}_{(i)}$ to $\mathbf y$ as one vector $d_i$, and *another* norm -- the norm of this vector $\mathbf d$. The geometric median minimizes the sum of its coordinates, i.e. its $L_1$ norm. I believe this answers the original question. – amoeba Aug 27 '14 at 21:57
  • @amoeba of course, but I thought that this is explained by "What is important here is that it does not matter what is the value for p, it will be an L1." – rapaio Aug 27 '14 at 22:09
  • @rapaio: Good if you understood it all along, but what I think was confusing for OP (and for me when I tried to understand your answer!) was -- the L1 norm **OF WHICH VECTOR?** I am just saying that it is not completely clear in your answer. Other than that, +1. – amoeba Aug 27 '14 at 22:13
  • @amoeba L1 is applied on the vectors of distance values (in $\mathbb{R}$), L2 is applied on the dimensions of elements (in $\mathbb{R}^m$) to provide the value of distance function – rapaio Aug 27 '14 at 22:17
  • @amoeba Thanks for clarifying. It makes much more sense now. – Fixed Point Aug 28 '14 at 08:24