In Wikipedia's summary on Cramér's $V$, it is mentioned that it can (also) be used in the one-dimensional case as measure of concentration.
- What is the formula in this special case?
- Is there any reference about this alternative use?
No reference, link or explanation is offered at the article*, so this is guesswork, but I believe this is the intent/reasoning:
*(and as such it should probably be removed from Wikipedia)
1) Cramér's $V$ is a measure of association; it's a function of $\phi$ which is also a measure of association; they cannot really mean that there's a measure of association here.
2) However, Cramér's $V$ can be defined in terms of the statistic for the chi-square test of independence:
$V = \sqrt{ \frac{\chi^2/n}{\min(k - 1,r-1)}}=\sqrt{ \frac{\chi^2}{n(k - 1)}}$ (when $r=1$)
If you place the goodness-of-fit chi-square value in that formula in place of the usual independence chi-square, while you could not (to my mind) reasonably call that Cramer's $V$ (since it doesn't measure association), it would be a perfectly good measure of concentration. It's 0 when the categories are perfectly evenly represented and it's 1 when all the values are in a single category.