When comparing variances, very often a F-test is used.
$$F=\frac{s_1^2}{s_2^2}$$
We then compare $F$ to an F-distribution. The assumption of this test is that the two samples (which variances are $s_1^2$ and $s_2^2$) are normally distributed.
Can you please explain why (given that the two samples are normally distributed) $\frac{s_1^2}{s_2^2}$ is F-distributed?
If I am not mistaken, if $U_1$ and $U_2$ are chi-squared distributed with degrees of freedom $df_1$ and $df_2$ respectively, then $\frac{U_1/df_1}{U_2/df_2}$ is F-distribution distributed. I would really appreciate an answer that also give some words between the link between the chi-squared distribution and the F-distribution.