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Would it make sense to apply a measure of association test like Cramér's V on a 1xk table?

I am a bit puzzled because in the literature phi and Cramér V are normally used on 2x2 or bigger contingency tables, but while I was looking for some more info, I found the following statement on Wikipedia:

"Cramér's V may also be applied to goodness of fit chi-squared models when there is a 1×k table (e.g.: r=1). In this case k is taken as the number of optional outcomes and it functions as a measure of tendency towards a single outcome."

No reference is provided though. What do you think about it? Could you please give me some bibliographic reference?

Milton
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    Since the section you describe has been there since the initial creation of the article by [Tal Galili](http://stats.stackexchange.com/users/253/tal-galili) you might try contacting him (that link gives a link to his blog, at which in turn you can find a contact email under 'Contact me') and asking him firstly what it even means to have association within a single variable, how he intends the computation to be done, and for a reference (if there's no citation, it should probably be removed from the article as original research) - generally, if a person says something, ask them what they mean. – Glen_b Jun 18 '14 at 00:33

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