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I'm reading this section:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Private_language_argument

What a private language is

"If someone were to behave as if they understood a language of which no one else can make sense, we might call this an example of a private language.[3] It is not sufficient here, however, for the language to simply be one that has not yet been translated. In order to count as a private language in Wittgenstein's sense, it must be in principle incapable of translation into an ordinary language – if for example it were to describe those inner experiences supposed to be inaccessible to others.[4] The private language being considered is not simply a language in fact understood by one person, but a language that in principle can only be understood by one person. So the last speaker of a dying language would not be speaking a private language, since the language remains in principle learnable. A private language must be unlearnable and untranslatable, and yet it must appear that the speaker is able to make sense of it."

I'm having trouble seeing what "in principle can only be understood by one person" means. Suppose all humans have died except one. He understands English but now he can't write or speak anymore. Let's say all records of English have been destroyed. The last human just relies on his memory of English for his own internal thought process. Would English in this situation count as a private language in Wittgenstein's terms?

Ameet Sharma
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2 Answers2

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A private language according to Wittgenstein is a language that -- in principle -- can only be understood by one person. Put differently, the meaning of its sentences and words is very principally only accessible by this singleton.

The typical dummy of a private language, Wittgenstein fights, is a language of private sensations.

According to this dummy

  • the meaning of "red" is private because each of us has a different sensation of red
  • a blind could actually not understand what "red" means because she lacks any sensation of red

Now, according to Wittgenstein it's all the other way around. As matter of fact, we do understand each other when talking with words like "red". Even a blind person is quite competent in the use of "red". This proves that private sensations are (almost) irrelevant for the meaning of "red" and that, hence, "red" is public.

Wittgenstein would go even further and argue for the impossibility of private languages. As all language is based on rules and rules are (formulated in) public (language), there cannot be a private language.

As usual, Wittgenstein, the elliptical genius, has a point.

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A language, by definition and in practise, is used for communication, whether privately amongst a group, as in argot, or publicly, as in language. Thus Wittgensteins notion of a private language is actually badly named, since in fact it's not langauge at all.

But given that there is no term that described what he was referring to, he co-opted terms and gave them a new meaning. This happens all the time. For example, television means far (tele) seeing (vision). And whilst it is not far seeing with your own eyes, to take the term literally, one can see why the term has been used. Likewise with Wittgensteins notion of a private language.

But philosophically speaking, one should not confuse it with a language per se.

Mozibur Ullah
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