3

Can we ever prove a theorem cannot be proven directly (i.e. We must use contrapositive or prove by contradiction.)? Can we even rigorously defined whether a proof is direct or not?

Example:
I was reading Steiner–Lehmus_theorem: Every triangle with two angle bisectors of equal lengths is isosceles.

I knew a few elementary proofs of this theorem, but none of them are direct proof (for example: constructing congruent triangle).

The wiki page briefly mentioned the debate on whether equating algebraic expressions for angle bisectors and factoring is a direct proof or not, I don't quite understand that part either.

Daniel Fischer
  • 203,207
  • 18
  • 266
  • 396
  • 6
    You can see also this [post](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/243770/can-every-proof-by-contradiction-also-be-shown-without-contradiction) for more details. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Oct 27 '14 at 17:32

0 Answers0