This, I hope, is not a duplicate; I am exercising my critical thinking here and I want to understand what going on, and the available content I have found online on this so far has not helped.
I'm getting conflicting information regarding whether $1=0.\overline{9}$ (i.e., "$0$ point $9$ recurring") holds in nonstandard analysis.
On one hand, we have this comment:
Simply speaking, NSA does not lead to conclusions about $\Bbb R$ that differ from those of standard analysis. Giving alternate definitions of $0.99…$ is not really the concern of most researchers working in NSA: we roll with the usual definition (as in Rudin above), and so $0.999⋯=1$.
This was found here:
Reference request: How is $0.99\cdots$ defined in nonstandard analysis?
On the other hand, we have:
In that question and its answers, the number
$$0.9_N:=\sum_{i=1}^N 9\cdot 10^{-i} $$
where $N\in{}^*\mathbb{N}\setminus\mathbb{N}$ is an infinite nonstandard natural number
is defined and it is shown that $1-0.9_N$ is a positive infinitesimal number.
Both seem reasonable to me, so what gives?
The Question:
Does $1=0.\overline{9}$ in nonstandard analysis? Does the question make sense; that is, is there an issue of interpretation or something that leads to these two seemingly opposing responses? Please would someone settle the matter with references?
Thoughts:
My best and only guess is that $0.9_N$ is not the standard definition of $0.\overline{9}$. I don't understand how though.
It is my understanding that
$$0.\overline{9}:=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{9}{10^n}.$$
Edit: As explained in this comment of mine below, I suppose the problem is that I don't get why
$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{9}{10^n}$$
is not implicit in
$$\sum_{i=1}^N 9\cdot 10^{-i} $$
for infinite $N$.