11

I'm trying to solve the following question (this is just for practice):

If $u$ is harmonic within $\mathbb{R}^n$ with $\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}|Du|^2 dx \leq C$ for some $C > 0$, then show that u is a constant in $\mathbb{R}^n$.

I guess the idea is to somehow show that $Du = 0$ which implies $u$ is constant, or otherwise show that $u$ is bounded and thus constant by Liouville's theorem. I can't quite see how to do this though. Of course if it were on a bounded domain $U$ I know I could use the integration by parts formula $$0 = - \int_U u \Delta u dx = \int_U |Du|^2 dx - \int_{\partial U} u^2 dS$$ which would imply that $u$ is bounded ... but then Liouville's theorem doesn't apply because it's not defined on all of $\mathbb{R}^n$ (I think).

Can anyone point me in the right direction? (Also, out of curiosity, is there some kind of analogue of integration by parts for unbounded domains?)

saurs
  • 1,317
  • 3
  • 13
  • 18
  • Could you clarify what you mean by $Du?$ – user64494 Jun 17 '13 at 19:43
  • @user64494 Should be the gradient of $u$. – Shuhao Cao Jun 17 '13 at 19:47
  • Yes $Du$ is the gradient of $u$. Anyway the integration formula doesn't apply in this case (I think) since the domain is unbounded. But I am curious if there's some kind of analogue. Otherwise I'm not sure how to proceed. – saurs Jun 17 '13 at 19:57
  • 1
    Let $U$ be a ball with radius $r$ centered at an arbitrary point $p$. Your work shows that $Cr^n$ times the the mean value integral of $u^2$ is bounded. Let $r$ go to infinity to crush the mean value integral ($=u^2(p)$) to $0$. – Potato Jun 17 '13 at 21:39
  • 1
    Shouldn't the integrand in the integral on $\partial U$ be $u\frac{\partial u}{\partial \nu}$? – Julián Aguirre Jun 18 '13 at 13:31
  • @JuliánAguirre Yeah, should be like that, or $\nabla (u^2)\cdot \nu/2$. – Shuhao Cao Jun 18 '13 at 15:33

2 Answers2

14

If I understand your problem, you are trying to prove that an harmonic function on $\mathbb R^N$ whose gradient is $L^2(\mathbb R^N)$ is necessarily constant.

First of all, you should point out what definition of harmonic function you use; I will use the fact that a continuous function $u$ which satisfies the mean property is harmonic (it is equivalent to $u \in C^2$ and $\Delta u =0$). I remark also the fact that an harmonic function is necessarily $C^{\infty}$ (indeed, analytic) - you can easily see this by using mollifiers.

If $u$ is harmonic, then $\partial_{x_i}u$ is harmonic for every $i=1,\ldots , N$. It follows that $\nabla u$ has the mean property: using Cauchy-Schwarz, $$ \vert \nabla u(x) \vert =\left\vert \frac{1}{\omega_N R^N}\int_{B(x,R)}\nabla u(y)dy \right\vert \leq \frac{1}{\omega_N R^N}\int_{B(x,R)} \vert \nabla u(y) \vert dy\leq \frac{\sqrt{\omega_N R^N}}{\omega_N R^N}\left(\int_{B(x,R)}|\nabla u(y)|^2 dy\right)^{1/2}\leq\frac{||\nabla u||_2}{\sqrt{\omega_N R^N}} $$

Let $R \to + \infty$ and you get $\nabla u(x)=0$, which is the claim. Hope this helps (but I am afraid of misunderstanding the question).

Remark: if this is correct, we can substitute the hypothesis $\nabla u \in L^2(\mathbb R^N)$ with the more general one $\nabla u \in L^p(\mathbb R^N)$, for some $p \in [1,+\infty]$.

Romeo
  • 5,935
  • 2
  • 24
  • 59
  • 2
    or what is interpreting as a gradient? the gradient is a function of $R ^ n$ in $R ^ n$. How are you using the mean property? – Lucas May 18 '19 at 13:31
  • It first equality maybe a bit problematic, but I think it’s overall fine. Just estimate each $\partial_i u$ by the same method. Since $u\in C^2$ this implies the gradient vanishes. – Mr. Brown Jan 06 '23 at 06:11
4

This problem is really interesting and after a long search on internet, I have found the solution of the problem: I will post here the crucial steps to prove it

I - Weitzenbock–Bochner Formula

For every harmonic function $u$ we have that $$\tag{1}\frac{1}{2}\Delta (|\nabla u|^2)=|\operatorname{Hess}(u)|^2$$

II - Another Fomurla (this is the formula for $\Delta(uv)$.

$$\tag{2}|\nabla u|\Delta (|\nabla u|)=-|\nabla (|\nabla u|)|^2+\frac{1}{2}\Delta (|\nabla u|^2)$$

III - Kato Refined Inequality

$$\tag{3}|\operatorname{Hess}(u)|^2-|\nabla (|\nabla u|)|^2\geq\frac{1}{n-1}|\nabla (|\nabla u|)|^2$$

for $x$ a.e. on the open dense subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$: $\Omega=\{x\in \mathbb{R}^n:\ |\nabla u|\neq 0\}$.

IV - Ambrosio and Xavier Proposition 2.1

Now, we can prove the statement.

By joining $(1)-(3)$, we have that $$\tag{4}|\nabla u|\Delta(|\nabla u|)\geq\frac{1}{N-1}|\nabla(|\nabla u|)|^2$$

in the sense of distributions. Because the $L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ energy of $u$ is bounded, we conclude by IV that $|\nabla u|$ is constant and then $\nabla u(x)=0$.

Remark: All I have done here can be generalized for Manifolds. (see Proposition 6.1). Also, maybe there is a more straightforward prove of this fact in the $\mathbb{R}^n$ case!

Tomás
  • 22,089
  • 4
  • 41
  • 101
  • How exactly are you justifying the fact that $|Du(x)|$ is bounded and converges to zero as $|x|\rightarrow \infty$? If I recall correctly, there are smooth functions that are integrable but do not limit to $0$ at infinity. – Potato Jun 18 '13 at 01:57
  • @Potato, the function would necessarily have to go to zero. If it is bounded in some way, it must oscillate or eventually approach some value. If it oscillates but doesn't go to zero, the integral doesn't converge in the usual sense clearly. If it doesn't go to zero and doesn't oscillate, then it approaches some finite value. You could easily argue that the integral will diverge. The real issue is with integrable singularities however I think these can be easily dealt with by considering the requirement that the function be harmonic on all of $\mathbb{R}^n$. – Cameron Williams Jun 18 '13 at 03:16
  • @CameronWilliams It can oscillate, not go to zero, and still be bounded. This is exercise 6 on page 91 of Stein and Shakarchi's *Real Analysis*. I don't see why $|Du(x)|$ must be bounded or why it must converge to zero. – Potato Jun 18 '13 at 03:27
  • @CameronWilliams Consider, for example, the function equal to $1$ on the segment $[n, n +1/n^2)$ for $n\ge 1$. You can construct a smooth example using bump functions in the same way. – Potato Jun 18 '13 at 03:29
  • @Potato I see your point. I sometimes forget these pathological - yet very important - examples. – Cameron Williams Jun 18 '13 at 04:22
  • @CameronWilliams You can also get an unbounded example by taking the function to be $n$ on $[n+1/n^3)$. So I am highly suspicious of the claim that $Du(x)$ is bounded and converges to zero. Of course, there could be something about harmonic functions that makes it work in this instance. I just don't see it. – Potato Jun 18 '13 at 04:23
  • (That was more directed at the answerer than you. Sorry for repeating myself.) – Potato Jun 18 '13 at 04:24
  • @Potato no worries. I found the reference you mentioned and they do make a good argument. I think OP was on the right track initially. I think one often thinks of quickly decaying functions when thinking about $L^2$ boundedness but examples such as yours fly in the face of that. – Cameron Williams Jun 18 '13 at 04:27
  • @Potato I have edited the answer, please take a look on it – Tomás Jun 18 '13 at 15:42
  • @Tomás I don't know enough about harmonic functions to comment. Sorry! – Potato Jun 18 '13 at 16:04
  • @Tomás So the conclusion is true when $u \in C_{0}^{\infty}$, can we then approximate the $u$ with such test functions? – Jason Moore Jul 18 '17 at 16:55