I attempting to prove the show trig identity, i.e. $\frac{\alpha}{\beta} > \frac{\sin\alpha}{\sin\beta}$. I have found that the radius is $1$ so there are three line segments equal to $1$, but I am unsure which segment would be $\frac{\sin\alpha}{\sin\beta}$?
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1Please give more [context](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/a/9960). Providing context not only assures that this is not simply copied from a homework assignment, but also allows answers to be better directed at where the problem lies and to be within the proper scope. Please [avoid "I have no clue" questions](https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/a/27933). Defining keywords and trying a simpler, similar problem often helps. – robjohn Nov 01 '18 at 15:30
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@robjohn I have identified the line segments equal to one and a few that are equal to $\sin\alpha$ and $\sin\beta$ (I now see this is difficult to explain without points on my diagram). My question is how to get the two sin over each other? I'm aware that tan is sin/cos but do not know how to approach sin/sin? Maybe a ratio? – K Math Nov 01 '18 at 15:35
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2As mentioned in the post on context I linked above, where this problem came from can be important. This is not a simple problem and the simplest approach I see so far is to use the identity $$\frac{\sin(x)}{x}=\prod_{k=1}^\infty\cos\left(\frac x{2^k}\right)$$ and then notice that $\cos(x)$ is a decreasing function on $\left[0,\frac\pi2\right]$. – robjohn Nov 01 '18 at 15:41
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1Also note that the inequality, as stated in the question, cannot be correct since taking the reciprocal of both sides gives $\frac\beta\alpha\lt\frac{\sin(\beta)}{\sin(\alpha)}$. You need the assumption shown in the image that $\beta\lt\alpha$. – robjohn Nov 01 '18 at 15:55
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1Although I had come across it before, it had entirely slipped my mind that this inequality is associated with the name of [Aristarchus of Samos](http://www-groups.dcs.st-and.ac.uk/history/Biographies/Aristarchus.html) (c.310-230 BC). A search including his name turns up this answer by @EuYu: [Proof of Aristarchus' Inequality](https://math.stackexchange.com/a/538557/213690). – Calum Gilhooley Nov 13 '18 at 23:44
4 Answers
$$\sin x < x < \tan x \qquad \forall~x \in [0, \frac{\pi}2]$$
If one agrees to start with the above known fact (which is purely an intuitive geometric fact as detail in e.g. this answer and NOT about algebraic analysis of functions), then:
On one hand, we have $$ \frac{\alpha - \beta}2 > \sin \bigl( \frac{ \alpha -\beta}2\bigr) \quad \implies\quad \alpha - \beta > 2 \sin \bigl( \frac{ \alpha -\beta}2\bigr) \tag*{Eq.(1)}$$ On the other hand, $ \alpha > \beta$ and cosine being a decreasing function yield $$ \beta < \tan\beta = \frac{ \sin\beta }{ \cos\beta } < \frac{ \sin\beta }{ \cos\bigl( \frac{ \alpha + \beta}2 \bigr) } \quad \implies \quad \sin\beta > \beta \cdot \cos\bigl( \frac{ \alpha + \beta}2 \bigr) \tag*{Eq.(2)} $$ The product of the two inequalities (all terms are positive) gives us \begin{align} && (\alpha - \beta) \cdot \sin\beta &> \beta \cdot 2 \sin\bigl( \frac{ \alpha - \beta}2 \bigr)\cos\bigl( \frac{ \alpha + \beta}2 \bigr) \\ &\implies & (\alpha - \beta) \cdot \sin\beta &> \beta \cdot (\sin\alpha - \sin\beta) \\ &\implies & \frac{\alpha - \beta}{ \beta } &> \frac{\sin\alpha - \sin\beta}{ \sin\beta}\qquad \text{, then $+1$ on both sides} \\ &\implies & \frac{ \alpha }{ \beta } &> \frac{ \sin\alpha }{ \sin\beta} \end{align} Note that the whole derivation can be viewed as a purely geometric proof expressed via algebra. One can make a sketch and find ALL the relevant lengths (including e.g. $\frac{ \sin\beta }{ \cos( \frac{ \alpha + \beta}2 ) }$).
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Consider first the case where $\alpha, \beta$ are commensurable, i.e.: $$ \alpha = n\gamma, \ \beta = m\gamma \quad (0 < m < n). $$ By taking a smaller value of $\gamma$, if necessary, we can suppose that $m > 1$.
Inscribe in the unit circle the broken line [polygonal chain] with vertices: $$ A_j = (\cos(j\gamma), \sin(j\gamma)) \quad (0 \leqslant j \leqslant n). $$ Denoting the origin by $O$, we have: \begin{align*} \frac{\alpha}{\beta} = \frac{n}{m} = & \frac{\text{area of polygon } OA_0A_1{\cdots}A_n} {\text{area of polygon } OA_0A_1{\cdots}A_m}, \\ \frac{\sin\alpha}{\sin\beta} = & \frac{\text{area of triangle } OA_0A_n} {\text{area of triangle } OA_0A_m}, \\ \therefore\ \frac{\sin\alpha}{\sin\beta} < \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \iff & \frac{\text{area of triangle } OA_0A_n} {\text{area of triangle } OA_0A_m} < \frac{n}{m} \\ \iff & \frac{\text{area of polygon } A_0A_1{\cdots}A_n} {\text{area of polygon } A_0A_1{\cdots}A_m} > \frac{n}{m}. \end{align*} Define: $$ a_j = \text{area of triangle } A_0A_jA_{j+1} \quad (0 < j < n). $$ Then: $$ \frac{\sin\alpha}{\sin\beta} < \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \iff \frac{a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_{n-1}} {a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_{m-1}} > \frac{n}{m}. $$It is enough to prove that the sequence $(a_j)$ is strictly increasing, because this implies: \begin{align*} \frac{a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_{n-1}} {a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_{m-1}} & = 1 + \frac{a_m + a_{m+1} + \cdots + a_{n-1}} {a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_{m-1}} \\ & \geqslant 1 + \frac{(n - m)a_m}{(m - 1)a_{m-1}} > 1 + \frac{n - m}{m - 1} = \frac{n - 1}{m - 1} \\ & > \frac{n}{m}. \end{align*} If $B_j$ is the foot of the perpendicular from $A_0$ to $A_{j+1}A_j$ produced, then $A_0B_{j+1}$ intersects $A_jB_j$ at a point $C$, and $A_0B_{j+1} > AC > A_0B_j$, whence $a_{j+1} > a_j$, as required. $\square$
This figure illustrates the case $n = 5$, $m = 3$, $j = 2$:
If $\alpha, \beta$ are not commensurable, we can (as moderns!) appeal to continuity, in order to complete the proof. Although I don't yet see how the ancient Greeks would have dealt with the incommensurable case, I don't doubt that they did deal with it, and probably with great ease.
(One might expect to find in Euclid a proposition to the effect that if $m < n$, then the area of a regular $m$-gon is less than that of a regular $n$-gon inscribed in the same circle; but it doesn't seem to be there. This may be worth a question in History of Science and Mathematics SE - unless someone here already knows where such a result may be found in extant Greek mathematical texts.)
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1@TangentPlane I'm getting a little frazzled, so will have to take some time to digest all this. Meanwhile, I have added a section about perimeters to my [question in HSM-SE](https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/7919). I apologise if it is essentially just a copy of something you've already written! – Calum Gilhooley Nov 08 '18 at 20:37
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1Alternatively, since the angles $\angle A_j A_0 A_{j+1}$ are all equal for $1\leq j < n,$ you can reflect $A_{j-1}$ over $A_0A_j$ onto $A_0 A_{j+1}$, and then $\triangle A_{j-1} A_0 A_j$ is congruent to a triangle that is strictly contained in $\triangle A_j A_0 A_{j+1}$. – David K Feb 10 '20 at 13:58
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@DavidK That's a lot neater. Thank you. (Incidentally, it looks as if a long comment thread has been deleted. I never did get to grips with all the implications of this question, or [this](https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2972693), or several other related questions. A big tidying-up job is probably needed.) – Calum Gilhooley Feb 10 '20 at 16:02
Two approaches
Concavity of $\boldsymbol{\sin(x)}$
If $f(x)$ is concave, then $\frac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}$ is a decreasing function of $x$ and a decreasing function of $y$.
$\sin(x)$ is concave on $[0,\pi]$. Therefore, $$ \frac{\sin(x)}{x}=\frac{\sin(x)-\sin(0)}{x-0} $$ is a decreasing function of $x$. Therefore, if $\beta\lt\alpha$, then $$ \frac{\sin(\beta)}{\beta}\gt\frac{\sin(\alpha)}{\alpha}\implies\frac{\alpha}{\beta}\gt\frac{\sin(\alpha)}{\sin(\beta)} $$
Sine Doubling and $\boldsymbol{\lim\limits_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(x)}x=1}$
Using $\cos(x/2)=\frac{\sin(x)}{2\sin(x/2)}$, induction gives $$ \prod_{k=1}^n\cos\left(\frac{x}{2^k}\right)=\frac{\sin(x)}{2^n\sin\left(\frac{x}{2^n}\right)} $$ As shown in this answer, $\lim\limits_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(x)}x=1$. Therefore, $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}2^n\sin\left(\frac{x}{2^n}\right)=x$. Thus, $$ \prod_{k=1}^\infty\cos\left(\frac{x}{2^k}\right)=\frac{\sin(x)}x $$ Since $\cos(x)$ is decreasing on $\left[0,\frac\pi2\right]$, we see that $\frac{\sin(x)}x$ is decreasing on $[0,\pi]$. Therefore, if $\beta\lt\alpha$, then $$ \frac{\sin(\beta)}{\beta}\gt\frac{\sin(\alpha)}{\alpha}\implies\frac{\alpha}{\beta}\gt\frac{\sin(\alpha)}{\sin(\beta)} $$
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$$f(x)={x \over \sin x}$$
$$f'(x)={\sin x - x \cos x \over \sin^2x}={\tan x - x \over \sin^2x \cos x}$$
For $x\in(0, \pi/2)$, $\tan x>x$ (proof) so $f'(x)>0$ which means that the function $f(x)$ is monotoniously increasing.
So if $\alpha>\beta$:
$$f(\alpha)>f(\beta)$$
$${\alpha \over \sin \alpha}>{\beta \over \sin \beta}$$
$${\alpha \over \beta}>{\sin \alpha \over \sin \beta}$$
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